AES 2026 Physics Prelim P1 QP

This document consists of 18 printed pages. [Turn over Preliminary Examination Secondary Four Express NAME CLASS INDEX NUMBER Physics Paper 1 Multiple Choice 6091/01 Monday, 31 August 2026 1 hour Additional materials: 1 sheet of OAS paper READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST Write your name, class and index number at the top of this page. Write in soft pencil. Do not use staples, paper clips, glue, correction fluid or highlighters. There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet. Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer. Any rough working should be done in this booklet. The use of an approved scientific calculator is expected, where appropriate. At the end of the examination, hand in your OAS paper and question booklet separately.

2 6091/4E/PRELIM/26 MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS (40 MARKS) Answer all questions on the OAS paper provided. 1 Which physical quantity is matched correctly to its unit? physical quantity unit A electric current ampere per second (A/s) B latent heat joules per kilogram degree Celsius (J/kg °C) C moment newton per metre (N/m) D pressure newton per metre squared (N/m2) 2 The graph shows how the speed of an object varies with time. What is the distance travelled by the object when it is moving at constant acceleration? A 20 m B 30 m C 75 m D 150 m

3 6091/4E/PRELIM/26 [Turn Over 3 A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the top of a building with an initial speed of 20 m/s. If air resistance is negligible, which graph best represents the velocity of the ball against time? A B C D 4 An astronaut measures the properties of a solid metal block on Earth and on the Moon. The gravitational field strength of the Moon is 1 6 of that on Earth. Which row correct ly describes how the properties of the block on the Moon compare to its properties on Earth? mass weight inertia A decreases unchanged unchanged B decreases unchanged decreases C unchanged decreases decreases D unchanged decreases unchanged 0 –20 velocity / m/s time / s 0 –20 velocity / m/s time / s 0 –20 20 velocity / m/s time / s 0 40 velocity / m/s time / s 20

4 6091/4E/PRELIM/26 5 A constant pulling force of 25 N is applied horizontally to a box of mass 4.0 kg along a rough floor. The box experiences a constant friction force of 5.0 N. What is the acceleration of the box? A 1.3 m/s2 B 5.0 m/s2 C 6.3 m/s2 D 7.5 m/s2 6 Which diagram shows the correct forces acting on an object that is sliding down a slope? A B C D normal reaction force friction weight normal reaction force friction weight normal reaction force friction weight normal reaction force friction weight

5 6091/4E/PRELIM/26 [Turn Over 7 A person is sitting on a box that is resting on the ground. Which two forces are an action-reaction pair? action force reaction force A force of Earth on man force of Earth on box B force of Earth on man weight of man C weight of box force of box on Earth D weight of box weight of man 8 A non-uniform rod of length 4.0 m is supported by two pivots, with an electronic balance placed under each pivot. What is the distance of the centre of gravity of the rod from end P? A 1.5 m B 2.0 m C 2.5 m D 3.0 m P

6 6091/4E/PRELIM/26 9 In the hydraulic system, a bowling pin of weight W rests on the small piston which has a cross -sectional area of A. The cross -sectional area of the large piston is 4A. The two pistons are at equal height. What is the upward force exerted by the liquid on the large piston? A 4 W B W C 2W D 4W 10 The container is filled with mercury. The atmospheric pressure is 76 cm Hg. What is the pressure at X, Y and Z in cm Hg? pressure at X / cm Hg pressure at Y / cm Hg pressure at Z / cm Hg A 0 30 10 B 0 76 86 C 76 30 40 D 76 106 116 area = A area = 4A 30 cm 10 cm X Y Z

7 6091/4E/PRELIM/26 [Turn Over 11 What is work done by a force? A force acting per unit area in contact with object B force required to accelerate an object of a certain mass C product of the force and the distance moved by the object D rate at which a force transfers energy to an object over a period of time 12 A crane lifts ten boxes each of mass 80 kg from the ground to a platform at a vertical height of 10 m. The entire operation takes 50 s. What is the useful average power developed by the crane to lift the boxes? The gravitational field strength is 10 N/kg. A 160 W B 625 W C 1600 W D 4000 W 13 A man wants to swing from point P to point Q, which is 1.0 m higher than P. At what initial speed must he take off in order to reach point Q? The acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2. A 3.2 m/s B 4.5 m/s C 10 m/s D 20 m/s Q P 1.0 m

8 6091/4E/PRELIM/26 14 The pressure of a gas is doubled when its volume is halved and the temperature is unchanged. Which statement(s) correctly explain(s) why the pressure is doubled? 1 Gas molecules move faster. 2 Gas molecules collide with each other more frequently. 3 Gas molecules hit the wall of the container at a greater force. A 1 only B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only 15 Why are gases compressible? A Gas particles are constantly moving at high speeds. B Gas particles have very high average kinetic energy. C Gas particles have very large average distance between them. D Gas particles have very weak intermolecular forces of attraction. 16 How does the transfer of energy mainly occur in a liquid? A The liquid at the hotter region emits radiation in all directions towards the colder region. B The liquid at the hotter region moves up and is replaced by the liquid at the colder region. C The more energetic free electrons move from the hotter region to the colder region. D The liquid particles at the hotter region vibrate more vigorously and collide with adjacent particles. 17 Which factor does not affect the rate of radiation of an object? A colour and texture of the object’s surface B physical state of the object C surface temperature of the object D total surface area of the object

9 6091/4E/PRELIM/26 [Turn Over 18 A solid substance is heated at its melting point. Which property of the solid must increase? A density B kinetic energy C mass D potential energy 19 When a liquid evaporates, some particles escape. What is the effect on the average kinetic energy of the liquid particles, and from which part of the liquid do the particles escape? average kinetic energy where particles escape from A decreases the surface only B decreases throughout the liquid C increases the surface only D increases throughout the liquid 20 What is the frequency of a wave? A the maximum displacement of a particle from its undisturbed position B the number of complete waves passing a fixed point per unit time C the time taken to produce one complete wave D the total distance travelled by a single wave crest per unit time

10 6091/4E/PRELIM/26 21 The diagram shows a transverse wave travelling to the right at two different instances. The dashed line represents the wave at t = 0 s and the solid line represents the wave at t = 0.050 s. What is the wavelength and the speed of the wave? wavelength / cm speed / cm/s A 20 100 B 20 200 C 40 100 D 40 200 22 An electromagnetic wave is used extensively in satellite television communication and cooking. Which row correctly identifies this wave and its typical danger to human health upon overex