2010 Y6 ACS Mathematics HL Mock Paper 1 (Solutions)
Uploaded by sabby Β· 11 November 2024
Preview
Anglo-Chinese School (Independent)/ Mathematics Department / IBDP Mathematics HL / Mock Exam / Paper 1 Solutions Page 1 of 8 2010 Y6 Mathematics HL Mock Paper 1 (Solutions) Qn Solution Marks 1 [6 marks] (a) det π΄ = β2 β 6π, det π΅ = 7β + 9 Since det π΄ = det π΅ and det π΄π΅ = 256β πππ π¨π© = πππ π¨ β πππ π© = (det π΅)2 = (7β + 9)2, i.e., (7β + 9)2 = 256β. Expand and simplify, we have 49β2 β 130β + 81 = 0. (b) By solving the equation in part (a), (β β 1)(49β β 81) = 0, β = 1 or β = 81/49 (N.A., since β is an integer) Note that det π΄ = det π΅, so β2 β 6π = 7β + 9, which implies π = β3. REMARK: Donβt waste your time to calculate the matrix π¨π©. Qn Solution Marks 2 [6 marks] The intersections of the two curves are given by π¦ = 2 β 3π₯ + π₯2 = 2 + π₯ β π₯2, i.e., 2π₯2 β 4π₯ = 0. Thus, π₯ = 0 or 2. Area = β« (2 + π₯ β π₯2 β 2 + 3π₯ β π₯2)ππ₯ 2 0 = β« (4π₯ β 2π₯2)ππ₯ = 2 0 [2π₯2 β 2 3 π₯3] 0 2 = 8 3 REMARK: To find out which curve is higher, substitute x = 1 to see which y-coordinate is greater. Qn Solution Marks 3 [6 marks] (a) β« π(π‘)ππ‘ π βπ = 1 β β« π 4 cos (ππ‘ 2 ) ππ‘ π βπ = [1 2 sin (ππ‘ 2 )] βπ π = 1 2 sin (ππ 2 ) β 1 2 sin (β ππ 2 ) = sin (ππ 2 ) = 1 Thus, sin (ππ 2 ) = 1 β ππ 2 = π 2 Thus, = 1 . (b) πΉ(π₯) = β« π(π‘)ππ‘ π₯ β1 = β« π 4 cos (ππ‘ 2 ) ππ‘ π₯ β1 = [1 2 sin (ππ‘ 2 )] β1 π₯ = 1 2 sin (π₯π 2 ) β 1 2 sin (β π 2) = 1 2 (sin (π₯π 2 ) + 1) REMARK: You can also find c.d.f. in the following way: πΉ(π₯) = β« π(π₯)ππ₯ = β« π 4 cos (ππ₯ 2 ) ππ₯ = 1 2 sin (π₯π 2 ) + πΆ, then use πΉ(β1) = 0 ππ πΉ(1) = 1 to find C. (c) πΉ(π₯) = 1 2 (sin (π₯π 2 ) + 1) So,
Anglo-Chinese School (Independent)/ Mathematics Department / IBDP Mathematics HL / Mock Exam / Paper 1 Solutions Page 2 of 8 πΉ(π₯) = 1 4 β 1 2 (sin (π₯π 2 ) + 1) = 1 4 β sin (π₯π 2 ) = β 1 2 β π₯π 2 = β π 6 β π₯ = β 1 3 πΉ(π₯) = 3 4 β 1 2 (sin (π₯π 2 ) + 1) = 3 4 β sin (π₯π 2 ) = 1 2 β π₯π 2 = π 6 β π₯ = 1 3 Thus, the interquartile range is =ο· οΈ οΆο§ ο¨ ο¦ββ 3 1 3 1 2 3. Qn Solution Marks 4 [6 marks] Let π be the marks, and π~π(π, π2). We are given π(π β₯ 80) = 0.1 and π(π β₯ 65) = 0.3 Then by inverse normal distribution table (NOT GDC) 80 β π π = πππ£ππππ(0.9) = 1.2816 65 β π π = πππ£ππππ(0.7) = 0.5244 i.e., {π β 1.2816π = 80 π β 0.5244π = 65 Solve the simultaneous equations (2 s.f.): {π = β19.81 β β20 π = 54.61 β 55 REMARK: You also need to know how to use table to find other values, for example invnorm(0.1). Qn Solution Marks 5 [6 marks] β’ The range of arcsin function is [β π 2 , π 2]: 4 > π, so β π 2 β€ π β 4 β€ π 2, then arcsin(sin 4) 4 = arcsin(sin(π β 4)) 4 = π β 4 4 = π 4 β 1 β’ The range of arccos function is [0, π] : 0 < 3 < π, then arccos(cos 3) 3 = 3 3 = 1 β’ The range of arctan function is ]β π 2 , π 2[ (open interval): 2 > π 2, so β π 2 β€ 2 β π β€ π 2, then arctan(tan 2) 2 =
Content continues in the PDF.
Related notes
- SOTA 2023 Prelim MAA HL Paper 2Exam Papers Β· 2023
- SOTA 2023 Prelim MAA HL Paper 1 SolutionsExam Papers Β· 2023
- SOTA 2023 Prelim MAA HL Paper 3Exam Papers Β· 2023
- SOTA 2023 Prelim MAA HL Paper 3 SolutionsExam Papers Β· 2023
- SOTA 2023 Prelim MAA HL Paper 2 SolutionsExam Papers Β· 2023
- SOTA 2023 Prelim MAA HL Paper 1Exam Papers Β· 2023

