2026 VJC H2 Biology Prelim P1 QP

1 VICTORIA JUNIOR COLLEGE JC 2 PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION 2026 HIGHER 2 NAME : ……………………………………………………….………………. CT CLASS: ………………...……… BIOLOGY Paper 1 Multiple Choice 9477 / 01 22/09/2026 1 hour Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST Write in soft pencil. Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid. Write your name and class on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided. There are thirty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet. Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer. Any rough working should be done in this booklet. The use of an approved scientific calculator is expected, where appropriate. This document consists of 20 printed pages. [Turn over]

2 1 A student is examining a eukaryotic cell with a transmission electron microscope (TEM). The student observes a large organelle bounded by a double membrane. The inner membrane is folded extensively, and the inside contains small, circular DNA molecules and ribosomes. Which of the following statements about this organelle is correct? A It is the site of protein synthesis for extracellular secretion. B It is responsible for the synthesis of ATP via oxidative phosphorylation. C It contains thylakoid membranes where light -independent reactions of photosynthesis occur. D It is the site of aerobic respiration and contains enzymes for Krebs cycle in its stroma. 2 Which property of proteins enables them to act as pH buffers? A They are soluble. B They contain carboxyl and amino groups. C They have a high molecular mass. D They possess both secondary and tertiary structures. 3 The diagrams below show four monosaccharides with the formula C6H12O6. Which diagrams do not show glucose molecules? A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

3 4 An extracellular enzyme X catalyses the hydrolysis of substrate S. The effect of temperature on the initial rate of reaction was investigated using equal concentrations of X and S. temperature / ºC 10 20 30 40 50 60 initial rate / arbitrary units 8 18 35 52 31 4 A second experiment was carried out at 40 ºC using the same concentration of S but different concentrations of X. concentration of X / arbitrary units 0.5 1.0 2.0 4.0 initial rate / arbitrary units 27 52 91 92 Which statement is best supported by the results? A At 40 ºC, increasing the concentration of X above 2.0 arbitrary units does not increase the rate because all S molecules have been converted into product. B At temperatures above 40 ºC, the decrease in rate is likely to result from changes to the tertiary structure of X, reducing the ability of its active site to bind S. C At 60 ºC, X has completely lost its tertiary structure because its initial rate is lower than that at 50 ºC. D At 40 ºC, increasing the concentration of X from 2.0 to 4.0 arbitrary units has little effect because X has reached its optimum temperature.

4 5 In an investigation, the same concentration of phosphorylase enzyme was added to different concentrations of glucose phosphate and incubated at 30 º C. At one-minute intervals, one drop of the reaction mixture was removed and added to a drop of iodine solution on a white tile. The diagram shows the results of this investigation. What explains the trend in the results of this investigation? A Phosphorylase catalyses a reaction converting glucose phosphate into starch. B The maximum rate of reaction is reached at 20 mg dm-3 of glucose phosphate. C Substrate concentration is limiting at 25 mg dm-3 of glucose phosphate or less. D Enzyme concentration is limiting at 25 mg dm-3 of glucose phosphate or less.

5 6 Researchers isolated different populations of stem cells and either cultured them separately, or mixed them together, forming samples P, Q, R and S. These samples were then cultured under conditions that promote differentiation. The percentages of cells that differentiated into each of four cell types were recorded, as shown in the table below. sample neuronal cells muscle cells liver cells blood cells P 18% 21% 17% 20% Q 0% 0% 0% 76% R 32% 29% 28% 0% S 0% 0% 0% 0% The remaining cells in each culture remained undifferentiated. Based on the results, which statement is a valid conclusion? A Stem cells in sample P are totipotent as they can give rise to all cell types. B Stem cells in sample Q are considered unipotent as they only give rise to blood cells. C Stem cells in sample R consist of different types of adult stem cells. D Stem cells in sample S are pluripotent because they retain the ability to self-renew. 7 What occurs during DNA replication, transcription and translation? 1 ATP provides energy. 2 Condensation reactions occur to form a polymer. 3 Hydrogen bonds form between purine and pyrimidine bases. A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 only D 3 only

6 8 A section of a DNA template strand has the base sequence: 5’ – C T A G G C C A T – 3’ The table of mRNA codons is as follows: mRNA codon amino acid UAC tyrosine GCC glycine CCG proline CGG arginine Using the data provided, what is the sequence of amino acids that would be produced from this DNA sequence? A methionine – glycine B tyrosine – glycine C methionine – arginine – proline D tyrosine – alanine 9 A gene codes for the following wild-type (normal) polypeptide sequence: Met – Thr – Val – His – Leu – Stop A single base substitution mutation occurred in the gene, resulting in the following polypeptide sequence: Met – Thr – Val – His – Leu – Stop Which statements best explain the result of the mutation? 1 It occurred in an intron, which was spliced out of the pre-mRNA before translation. 2 It changed the DNA sequence in a non-coding region upstream of the gene. 3 It resulted in a new codon that codes for the same amino acid due to the degenerate nature of the genetic code. 4 It caused a frameshift, but the amino acid sequence was restored by a second, compensating mutation. A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

7 10 Which row correctly shows the difference between mitosis and meiosis? mitosis meiosis A Mitosis involves the division of centromeres. Meiosis involves the division of chiasmata, not centromeres. B Mitosis is involved in growth and repair only. Meiosis is involved in reproduction only. C A triploid organism is able to undergo mitosis. Only diploid organisms are able to undergo meiosis. D In mitosis, one diploid nucleus is divided into two diploid nuclei. In meiosis, one diploid nucleus is divided into four haploid nuclei. 11 During the cell cycle, disassembly of membranes occurs. As membranes are disassembled, the phospholipids are temporarily stored in vesicles. Which prediction is consistent with events that occur in a plant cell during a meiotic cell cycle? A The number of vesicles will increase as DNA content in the nucleus doubles. B The number of vesicles will increase as the centrioles move to opposite poles. C The number of vesicles will decrease as the spindle apparatus develops. D The number of vesicles will decrease as the nucleoli re-appear in the nuclei. 12 Two regions of the same eukaryotic chromosome were examined. Region X has high degree of DNA methylation while region Y has high degree of histone acetylation. Which statement describes the difference in gene expression between the two regions? A Region X is more likely to contain actively transcribed genes because its DNA is more tightly packed and therefore protected from degradation. B Region X is less likely to be actively t